Imagine the hypothetical scenario...........
A young woman gives birth to five children, by five different fathers.![]()
From the outset she lied to the fathers on the nights of conception,about being 'sterilized' or on the 'pill' (or any other form of contraception), purely to gain from a very lucrative income from each father as child maintenance. (huge amounts depending on how much they earn).
So.................Why do these women seem to be immune from prosecution.?? Why arn't they charged with profiting by deception, or fraud.????.......
Am i on to something here......or am i wrong...?????![]()
Nothings 100% when it come to contraception except abstinance.
In effect the prosecution would argue there ws no gun to anyones head to have sex in the first place.
The case would be simmilar to a shoplifters, you can hardly argue that someone told you "you wouldnt get caught" so i thought it would be ok.
You knew the risks when you threw your c**k in someone so your responsible for paying for the crime.
