Ah! Is this perhaps, at very long last, a 'Eureka moment' in terms of my understanding of the problem that you all seem to be having with the test? Have you all perhaps been misunderstanding the test?I'm seeing two fingers, all the way from arm's length, to touching my nose, providing I focus on the TV screen, at the far side of the room.
People undertaking the test are asked to hold up a finger at arm's length and "look at it" (with both eyes open) - which nearly everyone usually interprets (correctly!) as meaning focus on it. They are then asked to move that finger (whilst still 'looking at'/'focussed on' it) so that it lines up with some (somewhat out-of-focus) distant object. Finally (again, whilst still 'looking at'/'focussed on' their finger), they are asked to close each eye in turn and see whether or not the finger they are looking at seems to move in relation to the out-of-focus distant object.
At no point should they focus on the distant object. If they do, their finger will become out-of-focus and very probably will be 'seen double'.
Does this perhaps explain all the 'problems' of our previous discussion?
Under normal circumstances, "how good" an eye is (in terms of visual acuity) has got absolutely nothing to do with dominance. Most people are born with one eye being dominant and, other than in exceptional circumstances, that will remain unchanged for life, even if visual acuity in the dominant eye deteriorates to the extent of being 'much worse' than in the non-dominant eye. I suppose it's possible that, in the very long term, if vision in the dominant eye became very poor, dominance might switch to the other eye, but I somewhat doubt that, and certainly don't recall having heard it being suggested.When I see two, the more defined image, seems to be that from my right eye, however recent eye tests, suggest my right eye is not as good as my left.
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