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Long time reader, first time poster. Having read the sticky threads regarding liquid DPM and self leveling for concrete, I have an understanding of what is required, but would rather hear some opinions on the current floor surface if possible!
Property is mid 1960s, solid ground floor. When stripping the bathroom, the area under the bath tub was bare concrete, lower than the rest of the "black" floor throughout the property. I am assuming its asphalt with a bitumen top layer, 10-15mm thick. It stops around 10mm away from the internal walls in all rooms.
It is not attached to the concrete floor below it in any way, and is very brittle, it comes up easily in large sections. Considering half the bathroom was already missing, and a wall was being removed, I took up the rest of it in that area to reveal the concrete slab.
There was a thin strip of DPM under the block internal wall as shown in the attached picture (it was lapped under the asphalt/bitumen on both sides). Does the asphalt/bitumen floor act as a DPC in this case, considering a strip of DPM was under the internal block wall?
Sections of the asphalt/bitumen is missing in the original kitchen, where I can only assume a cooker once was or similar. The kitchen wall is also being removed, which will leave another gap in this surface.
The size of the room will be approximately 26sqm. I'm considering removing the asphalt/bitumen as it comes up so easily and breaks up, so I have a bare concrete floor to work with. There is no evidence of damp at the moment.
Would a liquid DPM be recommended (or other form of DPM) in this scenario if my assumption is correct the asphalt/bitumen was acting as a DPM? Before fresh self-leveling/screed? The floor is going to be tiled.
Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks!
Property is mid 1960s, solid ground floor. When stripping the bathroom, the area under the bath tub was bare concrete, lower than the rest of the "black" floor throughout the property. I am assuming its asphalt with a bitumen top layer, 10-15mm thick. It stops around 10mm away from the internal walls in all rooms.
It is not attached to the concrete floor below it in any way, and is very brittle, it comes up easily in large sections. Considering half the bathroom was already missing, and a wall was being removed, I took up the rest of it in that area to reveal the concrete slab.
There was a thin strip of DPM under the block internal wall as shown in the attached picture (it was lapped under the asphalt/bitumen on both sides). Does the asphalt/bitumen floor act as a DPC in this case, considering a strip of DPM was under the internal block wall?
Sections of the asphalt/bitumen is missing in the original kitchen, where I can only assume a cooker once was or similar. The kitchen wall is also being removed, which will leave another gap in this surface.
The size of the room will be approximately 26sqm. I'm considering removing the asphalt/bitumen as it comes up so easily and breaks up, so I have a bare concrete floor to work with. There is no evidence of damp at the moment.
Would a liquid DPM be recommended (or other form of DPM) in this scenario if my assumption is correct the asphalt/bitumen was acting as a DPM? Before fresh self-leveling/screed? The floor is going to be tiled.
Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks!