Conduit for running cable behind plaster

As can I. January 31, 1983 was a bad day for freedom of choice.
You really are talking through your backside now. In a previous existance, I lost count the number of times I picked or scooped up bits of brain matter or parts of limbs, or in one case two eyes attached to the broken windscreen from people who didn't wear their seatbelt. How many people are still alive today because they 'belted up' - 66,000 and counting. So s** your freedom of choice - I'm for anything that makes things safer - ....
Totally 'off-topic', but I'm afraid that I with Paul on this one.

Just like you, in a previous existance, I also lost count of the number of lifeless people, bits of people or seriously damaged people I saw who hadn't been wearing seatbelts and who might well have still been alive or intact if they had. As a result, I've always been a passionate believer in setbelt use. I fitted them to my first car and used them long before even their fitting, let alone use, became compulsory, and I've always strongly encouraged everyone else to use them.

However, IMO the current legislation is an almost unprecdented affront to personal freedom. We live in a society in which it is lawful to smoke, drink oneself silly, climb mountains, jump out of aircraft or engage in any number of other highly hazardous activities - and even (for decades now) to deliberate kill oneself. If sane informed adults wish to take such risks/decisons, I believe that's entirely up to them - and I believe the same should be true of seatbelt use (failure to use them directly affecting only the individual concerned).

Kind Regards, John
 
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That's obviously a different question.
No it isn't.


Give the extreme vagueness of Part 1 ("Reasonable provision...."), the only people who could actually tell you what they would accept (or what they would contest) as a stated means of complying with P1 are the particular LABC themselves.
No.

LABCs are not obliged to prescribe methods of complying with P1. The person carrying out electrical installation is obliged to comply with it, therefore he has to believe that he has chosen to use methods which lead to compliance.


It is widely stated (including often here) that compliance with BS7671 'is one way of showing compliance with P1'. Whilst that is undoubtedly how things work in practice, that's because of the way LABCs choose to interpret/apply P1, not because that's what P1 actually says (since it doesn't!).
Indeed, but in this country contravening BS 7671 is not a good basis for compliance with P1.


Indeed, there's nothing in P1 which prevents LABC from saying that they are not satisfied with P1 compliance even when work is BS7671 compliant.
There's nothing which prevents them from refusing to accept applications from people with ginger hair either, but on both cases I think that common sense would prevent them from committing legal suicide.


Conversely, since P1 has chosen not to reference BS7671, I don't think they can really say the absence of BS7671 compliance, per se, automatically indicates non-compliance with P1 (an interesting point if they found themselves facing Judical Review).
True, but we come back to the fact that the law requires the installer to comply with P1, so if he chooses, not merely to not work to BS 7671 but to actually deliberately contravene it, what methodology is he going to adopt in its place?


So, I guess one way to proceed would be to present a reasoned engineering argument as to why one believes that "Reasonable provsions...." have been applied and leave it for them to challenge that argument if they so wished (remembering that, as a public body, they are susceptible to Judicial Review).
Yes - you could indeed decide to argue that JPEL/64 were wrong to increase the safety requirements in BS 7671, and that in your considered opinion it would be acceptable to take no notice of them.

Or you could act reasonably.


FWIW, I am as passionately against their legally compelled use (by adults) as I am a passionate believer for their use!
T**t.


If they want something to be 'legally unacceptable', they have to put it into Statute, just as they did with the wretched seatbelt legislation. They could so easily have written a requirement for BS7671-compliance into legislation (i.e. mention it in P1), but they chose not to. Domestic wiring is therefore currently in the same position as setbelts were prior to the current legislation being enacted.
Ah - so you are a passionate believer in compliance with BS 7671 then.
 
LABCs are not obliged to prescribe methods of complying with P1. The person carrying out electrical installation is obliged to comply with it, therefore he has to believe that he has chosen to use methods which lead to compliance.
Exactly.
Indeed, but in this country contravening BS 7671 is not a good basis for compliance with P1.
I didn't say that it was - but nor is it a legally-required (or even guaranteed to work) basis for compliance with P1.

True, but we come back to the fact that the law requires the installer to comply with P1, so if he chooses, not merely to not work to BS 7671 but to actually deliberately contravene it, what methodology is he going to adopt in its place?
Assuming that he is conversant with BS7671, then 'not working to' and 'deliberately contravening' become the same thing, so it's not really a case of "...not merely...but to....". As I said, one is free to present one's own reasoned argument as to why what one is done is compliant with P1, and then for them to find a way to challenge or discredit that argument (without simply citing BS7671 non-compliance). They are not quite as omnipotent as people seem to think, and have to come up with reasons that will stand up to independent scrutiny (something which civil servants generally don't like).

Kind Regards, John.
 
I wonder why 7671 is not statutory; it would be very easy to so make it.

On, I think, every course I have been on the instructors always emphasise that 7671 is not statutory, unlike EAWR, Buildings Regs. etc.

Also, in literally, every test I have taken there has been the question "Which of the following is NOT statutory?" and, obviously, the answer is 7671.

It's as if, for some reason, the powers that be want us to follow the regulations when working on electrical installations but are covering themselves because they know they are not enforceable - but why?
 
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Also, tonight on another forum I read that someone's annual assessment raised the issue of 134.1.1 with regard to Manufacturers' Instructions.

In particular, fitting a 3A Fused Connector for a bathroom extractor fan which an electrician had not done. Something happened and the electrician is being taken to task for his 'negligence'. The manufacturer stating that the damage or consequences would have been less severe had the electrician fitted the fuse. This seems to me a somewhat weak defence but nevertheless they are saying it.

I should be interested in the outcome - but have no further details to follow it up - if the electrician states in his defence that the fuse is not necessary and the circuit is perfectly safe. However, because of 134.1.1 he has contravened the regulations and so can be assumed 'guilty' of working it out for himself rather than following an unnecessary instruction written by a manufacturer for no apparent reason.
 
I wonder why 7671 is not statutory; it would be very easy to so make it. On, I think, every course I have been on the instructors always emphasise that 7671 is not statutory, unlike EAWR, Buildings Regs. etc. Also, in literally, every test I have taken there has been the question "Which of the following is NOT statutory?" and, obviously, the answer is 7671.
Exactly. That's the point I was making. It would only have required half a dozen words in P1 - hence, as you go on to say, it seems to have been deliberate.

It's as if, for some reason, the powers that be want us to follow the regulations when working on electrical installations but are covering themselves because they know they are not enforceable - but why?
Maybe. However, I've suggested in the past that one of the problems may be the convergence of the IEE Wiring Regs and BS7671. It could be as simply as legal bureaucracy not allowing a British Standard being enshrined in legislation - perhaps for as simple a reason as it having been written by an independent body, rather than by the legislature.

I've always thought that this 'convergence' is a bit odd, since a lot of what is in the BRB/BGB is not really 'a Standard' in the normal sense. 'Wiring Regulations'seems far more logical for this sort of wide-ranging set of rules about the practices across an entire industry - and, as above, I have a sneeky suspicion that if it were still only 'The Wiring Regs', it could well be Statutory by now ... but that's just wild speculation.

Kind Regards, John.
 
I should be interested in the outcome - but have no further details to follow it up - if the electrician states in his defence that the fuse is not necessary and the circuit is perfectly safe. However, because of 134.1.1 he has contravened the regulations and so can be assumed 'guilty' of working it out for himself rather than following an unnecessary instruction written by a manufacturer for no apparent reason.
This is, of course, where one would hope (but without holding one's breath) that those judging him were blessed by reasonable knowledge and some common sense.

Kind Regards,John.
 
My only thought on this is that if the OP ran the cables as suggested, (without RCD protection), and thereby not complying with BS7671.2008, how can the work be certified, (EIC or Minor), if you are signing to say that it complies??

So those who say 'just do it anyway' - what?? No Certs???


And before anyone says the dreaded word - 'departures'...........it wouldn't count, as any depatures have to have the same (or better) degree of safety than if it had complied.
 
How about BS7671:2001 ?
How about it - It no longer exists end of story.
Superseded.

Just because it's been superseded doesn't mean that it never existed or that work done now cannot comply with the requirements of it. Besides, look at the current official guidance document on how to comply with the requirements of Part P of the building regulations:

0.2 A way of satisfying the fundamental principles would be to follow:

(a) the technical rules described in the body of BS7671:2001 as amended {...}

Yes, the current Approved Document dates from 2006, but it is still supposed to be a representation of the official position at this time in 2011. So according to the government's own guidance notes, installing those cables without RCD protection still meets the requirement of making "reasonable provision for safety."

Just because the latest version of BS7671 says to provide RCD protection in certain circumstances does not mean that all those installations done before that time are in any way unsafe.
No one is saying that

Some people appear to be.

and BS7671 (2008) quite clearly states that fact.

In which case even if BS7671:2008 is taken as being the "must follow" guide for what's acceptable or not, there can be no question that non-RCD cables are still to be considered reasonably safe.

ban-all-sheds said:
The past is the past.

Superseded is superseded.

It's not considered perfectly acceptable any more.

So all those periodic inspections putting down non-RCD-protected cables as code 4 are completely wrong then?

The PIR is carried out against the current edition of BS7671. If, under that current version, the lack of RCD protection on the cables warrants no more than a "doesn't comply, but is not unsafe" observation, then the installation must be reasonably safe. It it wasn't reasonably safe, then it would have to warrant code 2 at the very least. I know some people seem to have been putting down crazy PIR codes for little things in recent years, but I've yet to see anyone try to claim this as anything more than a code 4.

Creating a new instance of that is not considered safe enough now.

By whom? Yes, BS7671 does not allow it now, but as noted already, equally it doesn't not declare existing installations to be in any way unsafe. Whether that new instance of a non-RCD-protected cable was created four years ago or yesterday in no way affects the level of safety which it provides today. If you are comparing it with some current accepted standard of safety, either it meets that standard or it doesn't. When it was installed is immaterial.

Work done NOW should comply with the standards of NOW.

As far as BS7671 is concerned, the legislation says otherwise.

Conversely, since P1 has chosen not to reference BS7671, I don't think they can really say the absence of BS7671 compliance, per se, automatically indicates non-compliance with P1
Especially when the official guidance notes explicitly reference two dozen other standards as being considered acceptable, even if many of the basic requirements in them are similar.

So, I guess one way to proceed would be to present a reasoned engineering argument as to why one believes that "Reasonable provsions...." have been applied and leave it for them to challenge that argument if they so wished (remembering that, as a public body, they are susceptible to Judicial Review).

Indeed. It is for the authority to prove that "reasonable provision" has not been made if it so believes. In the case at hand, we have a situation for an installation which little over three years ago was fully compliant with the then-current version of BS7671. It was considered quite acceptable and safe by just about everybody in the British electrical industry (including some of those who are now arguing that it's not acceptable). We've had those same people for the last three years carrying out inspections and noting the lack of RCD protection as nothing more than a code 4, supported by all the major organizations in the British industry. We have a still-current officially issued guide to complying with the building regulations which states that compliance with that older version of BS7671 is a way of demonstrating compliance with Part P.

With all of that, is there really any chance whatsoever that a local authority could actually prove its case in court?

JohnW2 said:
However, IMO the current legislation is an almost unprecdented affront to personal freedom. We live in a society in which it is lawful to smoke, drink oneself silly, climb mountains, jump out of aircraft or engage in any number of other highly hazardous activities - and even (for decades now) to deliberate kill oneself. If sane informed adults wish to take such risks/decisons, I believe that's entirely up to them - and I believe the same should be true of seatbelt use (failure to use them directly affecting only the individual concerned).

Succinctly put. One of my objections to the legislation is also on the grounds that seat belts clearly aren't beneficial in all cases, and many people have been maimed or killed by belts. The government has absolutely no right to force the use of a "safety device" on people when that device might actually prove harmful in some situations.

But even if that were not the case, it's still not the government's business to use the might of the state to try and force an individual to do something which is, supposedly, merely for his own benefit. Accept that argument for seat belts, and you accept it as a precedent for the state to start mandating almost anything you can think of which it decrees to be "for your own good." The existing motorcycle crash helmet law passed in 1973 was cited as precedent for the belt law when this issue was raised. In places like Australia and New Zealand, those laws have in turn been cited more recently as precedent for making the wearing of bicycle helmets compulsory. What next - Compulsory safety wear just to walk down the street?

Back to the topic...

LABCs are not obliged to prescribe methods of complying with P1. The person carrying out electrical installation is obliged to comply with it, therefore he has to believe that he has chosen to use methods which lead to compliance.

And it is for the LABC to demonstrate that he has not if it believes that to be the case.

Indeed, but in this country contravening BS 7671 is not a good basis for compliance with P1.

Again, the officially issued guidance clearly states otherwise.

Or you could act reasonably.

Such as by doing something which a mere three years ago was the generally accepted standard, and which compared with the current (non-statutory) standard is still considered to be perfectly safe and not in need of "improvement."

I wonder why 7671 is not statutory; it would be very easy to so make it. {.....}

It's as if, for some reason, the powers that be want us to follow the regulations when working on electrical installations but are covering themselves because they know they are not enforceable - but why?
JohnW2 said:
It could be as simply as legal bureaucracy not allowing a British Standard being enshrined in legislation - perhaps for as simple a reason as it having been written by an independent body, rather than by the legislature. {.....}

I have a sneeky suspicion that if it were still only 'The Wiring Regs', it could well be Statutory by now ... but that's just wild speculation.

I have a suspicion that it's more to do with being entangled in the EU. Everything which is done legislatively today is forced to take other European standards, EU directives, and so on into account, or consider the possibility that anything which refers explicitly to a British Standard could be challenged by the European courts and struck down as being "against EU law." Does anyone really believe that the references to other EU/EEA standards in the Approved Document are there for any other reason than this country's membership of the EU?

My only thought on this is that if the OP ran the cables as suggested, (without RCD protection), and thereby not complying with BS7671.2008, how can the work be certified, (EIC or Minor), if you are signing to say that it complies??

So those who say 'just do it anyway' - what?? No Certs???

DIY work in one's own house, extending an existing circuit by adding lights and switches so not notifiable. How many average householders would issue a certificate for such work?
 
How about BS7671:2001 ?
How about it - It no longer exists end of story.

Just because it's been superseded doesn't mean that it never existed or that work done now cannot comply with the requirements of it. Besides, look at the current official guidance document on how to comply with the requirements of Part P of the building regulations:

0.2 A way of satisfying the fundamental principles would be to follow:

(a) the technical rules described in the body of BS7671:2001 as amended {...}

Yes, the current Approved Document dates from 2006, but it is still supposed to be a representation of the official position at this time in 2011. So according to the government's own guidance notes, installing those cables without RCD protection still meets the requirement of making "reasonable provision for safety."
You really are talking absolute rubbish - again.

Firstly its says BS7671:2001 AS AMENDED - so in my view it means those that follow take precedent.
But secondly, and to cover all bases have a look here: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2010/2214/contents/made
in force from 1st October 2010
 
JohnW2 said:
However, IMO the current legislation is an almost unprecdented affront to personal freedom. We live in a society in which it is lawful to smoke, drink oneself silly, climb mountains, jump out of aircraft or engage in any number of other highly hazardous activities - and even (for decades now) to deliberate kill oneself. If sane informed adults wish to take such risks/decisons, I believe that's entirely up to them - and I believe the same should be true of seatbelt use (failure to use them directly affecting only the individual concerned).
Succinctly put. One of my objections to the legislation is also on the grounds that seat belts clearly aren't beneficial in all cases, and many people have been maimed or killed by belts. The government has absolutely no right to force the use of a "safety device" on people when that device might actually prove harmful in some situations.
Now you rather disappoint me! I think it a pity when people (like you) who (like me) are opposed to the seatbelt legislation because of its infringement of liberty 'spoil things' (and hence open up the the 'anti' campaign to attack) by wheeling out the argument that seatbelts can do harm. Statistically speaking, the chances of them causing harm are minute compared with the chances of them doing good. Most things in this world which are designed to 'do good' can also, usually very rarely, do harm, but we accept that as a fact of life - medicines can produce serious side effects, parachute rigging or climbers' ropes can wrap around someone's neck and strangle them, ABS or traction control on cars can go crazy and cause accidents etc. etc.

But even if that were not the case, it's still not the government's business to use the might of the state to try and force an individual to do something which is, supposedly, merely for his own benefit. Accept that argument for seat belts, and you accept it as a precedent for ....
... and that is the argument on which you should be majoring :) I'm not saying that use of a seatbelt has never done any harm, but I do think you weaken the impact of your argument by mentioning it.

Kind Regards, John.
 
Firstly its says BS7671:2001 AS AMENDED - so in my view it means those that follow take precedent.

BS7671:2008 is not BS7671:2001 as amended. "BS7671:2001 as amended" can mean only BS7671:2001 as it stood after its last amendment. If the intent was to mean the current version of BS7671 with all amendments to date, why not say "BS7671 as amended to date" instead of specifying a specific version?

But secondly, and to cover all bases have a look here: http://www.legislation.gov.uk/uksi/2010/2214/contents/made
in force from 1st October 2010

I'm not sure what point that's supposed to make. A search on the PDF version of the document reveals that it contains just one reference to BS7671:2008, and that's with regard to the definition of a special location (just as the previous version referenced BS7671:2001 for the same purpose).

JohnW2 said:
Now you rather disappoint me! I think it a pity when people (like you) who (like me) are opposed to the seatbelt legislation because of its infringement of liberty 'spoil things' (and hence open up the the 'anti' campaign to attack) by wheeling out the argument that seatbelts can do harm. Statistically speaking, the chances of them causing harm are minute compared with the chances of them doing good.

That's actually very arguable. For example, the very study that the government commissioned - The Isles Report - during the initial trial period of the belt law came to the conclusion that making use of belts in the front seats mandatory had resulted in no statistically significant drop in the number of injuries and fatalities on Britain's roads. The report was ignored and the law made permanent in 1986 anyway, and, of course, today you'll find absolutely no mention of the Isles Report in any official version of the history of the legislation.

I'm not saying that use of a seatbelt has never done any harm, but I do think you weaken the impact of your argument by mentioning it.

At least you accept that they have been harmful; some people absolutely refuse to accept that possibility at all, despite evidence to the contrary. But even if it is only a tiny percentage of cases, it still means that the state is mandating the use of something which might prove harmful to one's health, even fatal. The government has no right to play Russian Roulette with people's lives, regardless of whether the chances of harm resulting are 49% or only 1%.

I think that strengthens the argument against the legislation rather than weakening it.
 

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