High Court Rules...

Criminals (y) belonging to a criminal organisation (y) committing criminal acts. (y)

I could understand the argument if they’d been acquitted of all charges.
Your credibility rating is now at rock bottom...

Which bit of 'they weren't found guilty of any crime' do you not understand?

And given the decision that the act of proscribing has been ruled unlawful, what 'criminal organisation' are you referring to?
 
You are throwing in a lot of straw men.

This is how I would break it down:

The defendants admitted that they intentionally damaged the property.

The judge instructed the jury that these actions met the standard for the crime of criminal damage.

The judge instructed the jury that the defendants had no legal defence under English law.

However, the jury failed to reach a verdict. We need to look logically at the possible reasons why this happened.

Presumably, the jury accepted the defendants' admissions that they carried out those actions.

Presumably, the jury accepted the judge's guidance that none of the defences they put forward were legal under English law.

So, the only logical conclusion is that the jury must have based their decision on matters that had no legal basis.
Nope...

I'm saying that this is the legal system we have and that system didn't find them guilty...

They are in the eyes of the law not criminals...

As I said you can have an opinion, but you can't change the outcome of the trial.

There are of course avenues of appeal, but that applies to both sides.
 
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