Time limit to claim adverse possession after being told to get off?

[GettingOnWithItAll]

If my neighbour can claim adverse possession (let's ignore whether it's 10 or 12 yrs) and was told to get off 3 years ago but has done nothing, has his chance to claim gone?

In short, this is a simple case of a neighbour pushing a delapidated fence to claim a few extra inches when building a patio, as someone did by pushing a shed 6" into our land further along the fence 10-15 years ago before I moved in. I immediately told him to get his patio and shed out but things have been a stalemate for over 3 years now as, for various reasons, we've waited for the other to make the next move.

The deeds are quite clear on the width of our plots and the line of the boundary. A concrete path alongside the fence gives a good marker.

The issue needs to be resurrected now as he's selling his house. I'd rather sort it with him than new neighbours, the fence is falling apart and I've just replaced the top level fence that isn't under dispute.

BTW, let me make clear that I'm very much aware of how boundary disputes can go bad, so no need to warn me.

 

[^woody^]

He can claim anytime. You can dispute it anytime.

 

[Mottie]

A friend of mine had a semi detached house with a full width drive at the side leading to his garage in his rear garden. It’s not a shared drive. His neighbour (not the one he is attached to) had the same so there were two drives together with no boundary wall (many down that road have erected fences/walls to distinguish their own drives).About 10 years ago his neighbour built a side extension which took up about two thirds of the neighbours drive but still accessed his garage by driving on my friends drive. This has gone on for a few years. Does this mean that my friends neighbour could gain access rights because of the continued use?

 

[D_Hailsham]

Read this.

 

[^woody^]

A friend of mine had a semi detached house with a full width drive at the side leading to his garage in his rear garden. It’s not a shared drive. His neighbour (not the one he is attached to) had the same so there were two drives together with no boundary wall (many down that road have erected fences/walls to distinguish their own drives).About 10 years ago his neighbour built a side extension which took up about two thirds of the neighbours drive but still accessed his garage by driving on my friends drive. This has gone on for a few years. Does this mean that my friends neighbour could gain access rights because of the continued use?

Start your own thread, as land law is very dependant on it's own facts, and a slight change of circumstance can give a different outcome.