Several years ago I bought a house along with a friend, and we rented it out.
My understanding is that we are mortgaged on the basis of mortgagees in common.
We made about enough over the years to pay for the refurbs after the tenant(s) left, and enough to pay down the mortgage so that it is just about 10 grand higher than the market value.
Fast forward to the present day and we have fallen out, neither wants to buy out the other, and the interest only mortgage term ends in 2 years.
We are facing the reality of finding £10-15k more than the house is worth when the loan is called-in.
The house was bought for £105,000 in 2006, now worth about £85,000 with a £95,000 interest only mortgage.
The house has been on the market for nearly 18 months, with very little interest at £95,000 because my (ex) friend will not drop the price.
Here are the questions:
1. I believe an application can be made to the court to force a sale at market value - what is the name of that process?
2. If unsuccessful in forcing a sale, will I be allowed to pay just my half of the remaining mortgage when the loan is called-in?
3. How can I protect my creditworthiness if the other mortgagee defaults on his half?
I don't want to run up large legal bills but my credit rating is important to my present business, so it needs protection from another's potential default.
I am reluctant at this stage to approach the mortgage company for fear of them calling in the debt early; to be clear, the payments have always been on time and are up to date.
My understanding is that we are mortgaged on the basis of mortgagees in common.
We made about enough over the years to pay for the refurbs after the tenant(s) left, and enough to pay down the mortgage so that it is just about 10 grand higher than the market value.
Fast forward to the present day and we have fallen out, neither wants to buy out the other, and the interest only mortgage term ends in 2 years.
We are facing the reality of finding £10-15k more than the house is worth when the loan is called-in.
The house was bought for £105,000 in 2006, now worth about £85,000 with a £95,000 interest only mortgage.
The house has been on the market for nearly 18 months, with very little interest at £95,000 because my (ex) friend will not drop the price.
Here are the questions:
1. I believe an application can be made to the court to force a sale at market value - what is the name of that process?
2. If unsuccessful in forcing a sale, will I be allowed to pay just my half of the remaining mortgage when the loan is called-in?
3. How can I protect my creditworthiness if the other mortgagee defaults on his half?
I don't want to run up large legal bills but my credit rating is important to my present business, so it needs protection from another's potential default.
I am reluctant at this stage to approach the mortgage company for fear of them calling in the debt early; to be clear, the payments have always been on time and are up to date.
