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Another thing about percentages is that you are changing the baseline.
an increase from 100 to 120 is a 20% increase,
A decrease from 100 to 80 is a 20% decrease.
Well no you are not changing anything, not even the baseline.
Wait for it —- ——- An increase from 80 to 100 is a 25% increase.
So 80 and 100 two numbers from one to the other is 20 percent one way but is 25% the other way .
Now you have moved the baseline.
Therefore if you start from 100 then keep adding 10% at every step then you get to the end of your series of steps then decrease by 10% for the same number of steps you get two confusingly different answers.
The simple fact is 20% of 100 20% of 80 and 10% of 100 10% of 110.

Whether you're adding or subtracting makes no difference to the baseline, IE: 100+20% = 100+20 & 100-20% = 100-20.

It makes no difference adding the % then discounting or vice versa, IE: 100+20%-10% = 100-10%+20%. In that calculation the baseline does move for the second element IE it moves from 100 to 120 in the first instance and to 80 in the second,

One of my favourite numerical quiz questions is along the lines of: A TV costs £100 +20% VAT during a sale the price is reduced by 20%, how much will it cost. It's amazing listening to the mistakes in the teams discussions.
 
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A TV costs £100 +20% VAT during a sale the price is reduced by 20%, how much will it cost. It's amazing listening to the mistakes in the teams discussions.

Is the 20% reduction applied to the price before or after VAT is added?
 
That wouldn't be 100%, would it?
Well it would if the voting membership was all in favour or even if just all of those who had actually voted (depends what you are referring to as 100%) but if he ignored that it would make him dictatorial wouldn’t it?
 
Well no you are not changing anything, not even the baseline.

Now you have moved the baseline.

The simple fact is 20% of 100 20% of 80 and 10% of 100 10% of 110.

Whether you're adding or subtracting makes no difference to the baseline, IE: 100+20% = 100+20 & 100-20% = 100-20.

It makes no difference adding the % then discounting or vice versa, IE: 100+20%-10% = 100-10%+20%. In that calculation the baseline does move for the second element IE it moves from 100 to 120 in the first instance and to 80 in the second,

One of my favourite numerical quiz questions is along the lines of: A TV costs £100 +20% VAT during a sale the price is reduced by 20%, how much will it cost. It's amazing listening to the mistakes in the teams discussions.
No . The baseline if moving from 80 to 100 is 80.
The baseline if moving fro 100 to 80 is 100.
In other words the denominator.
 
As Morqthsna said about the 200% increase getting people confused. I did see this on a local Lib Dem leaflet. If deliberate then very underhand if accidental then very inept. Both outcomes same result, they unworthy of my vote
 
No bother.

I just thought if it were actually 100% there would presumably be no one who wanted to ignore the result.
 
In my opinion not even a 100% vote in favour should permit membership of a supranational body such as the so-called "EU" which seeks to usurp national sovereignty. Obviously the irony is that the so-called "UK" is a similar supranational body.
That's just plain silly!

For a start, we were already members of the EU at the time of the vote. You appear to be suggesting that we should have left the EU even if literally no-one (including members of government, from PM down, who all have votes) had voted to leave. Had that been someone's plan/intention, there clearly would have been no point in any voting!

Even if we had been starting from scratch, voting on whether we should join the EU for the first time, if literally 100% (including any aspiring dictator, who would presumably have a vote) voted to join, that would leave literally no-one to have a different view, let alone 'implement' it!

It seems a little ironic that someone should be writing the above whilst displaying a flag belonging to an EU Member Sate that has not yet even felt it necessary to have a vote on continued membership!
 
Is the 20% reduction applied to the price before or after VAT is added?
Very good good question - similar in some senses to the point I made about the application of multiple "percentage discounts" to a price. However, in this situation I don't think it would make any difference to the 'end price'
 
Take say car insurance as an example , if the insurance firm offers you X% discount fir something then if they offer Y% discount for something else then Z% discount for something else (very common sort of thing) you add the number X, Y and Z together and expect this to be the discount you get offered off the initial price then you will be quite disappointed.
 
Take say car insurance as an example , if the insurance firm offers you X% discount fir something then if they offer Y% discount for something else then Z% discount for something else (very common sort of thing) you add the number X, Y and Z together and expect this to be the discount you get offered off the initial price then you will be quite disappointed.
Indeed so - but the point I was making was not only that but, rather, that the extent to which one would be 'disappointed'would depend upon the order in which the three discounts had been applied.

It is in the seller's interests to first apply the largest discount and then to move down the progressively lower ones - but the opposite order would leave the buyer less 'disappointed'
 
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