Why "obviously"? I'm surprised that as a lawyer you're not more precise with your words, and that you rely so much on assumptions.
So are you only talking about the here and now? What the law is in this country today, not what it might be tomorrow, or was in the past, or is in other jurisdictions? Your "nothing" is shrinking in scope quite rapidly if you are.
It was irrelevant, we aren't at War, we aren't occupied by a foreign rogue state and need to mount a resistance and those committing the crimes could not be described as combatants.
What if we had been at war, but had been conquered and occupied? You seem there to indicate that resistance would be OK, but would that be time limited? If we were still occupied 5 years on, would resistance still be OK? 10 years? 50?
Do you start to see the problem with "nothing"?
Are laws passed under duress valid? Were the laws passed by the Pétainist regime in Vichy France to appease the Germans after the armistice France and Germany signed which created the so called "independent" country valid? Were the French Resistance justified in attacking military assets, or collaborating businesses? When the regime started rounding up Jews to be shipped to the camps, was nobody justified in sabotaging the railways?
Do you start to see the problem with "nothing"?
Please don't say 'oh that's very different', of course it is, but the problem with 'nothing' is that it has to apply no matter how different the circumstances. It would have to apply if we got an extreme right-wing government which enacted draconian anti-immigrant laws, and introduced an ICE-style organisation which went round forcibly rounding up non-whites and deporting them.
"Obviously" the law then would apply, but do you think that, no matter what, people are never justified in fighting back against tyrrany if no other options are available?