As big-all has written, it would be far from a straightforward case of 'theft', given's hard to see how there's any theft (certainly no 'theft' from the supplier), given that all the used electricity is being paid for. Also, since the situation is not the deliberate doing of the freeholders and/or leaseholders (who presumably were totally unaware of the situation for a long time), they could hardly be blamed for any 'theft'?Abstraction of electricity is theft, the supplier should be informed
... and, in any event, if one of the householders were guilty of 'theft', then so would the other one be - so I don't think that either would be too keen on complaining about any alleged 'theft'
