America again

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You mean - Boris only won the election because 56% of the voters did not vote for him (conservative).
Lol..you lot do like to twist stuff...Boris won an election..Shuffle the stats if it makes you feel better.
 
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Trump and the Republicans have constantly stoked culture wars. These people reject the reality around them now.

They don't need evidence of any wrongdoing - only the allegation. This happened on a smaller scale when a disgusting claim that there was a pedophile child ring operating out of a DC Pizzeria connected to the Clintons.

A fake news scandal.

https://www.rollingstone.com/feature/anatomy-of-a-fake-news-scandal-125877/
 
What break-up of the UK was Blair responsible for?
He granted caused the building of Scottish and Welsh parliaments - now we see the demands for independance referendums, I'm pretty certain it will happen - probably in the next 10 to 15 years. Part 1 of the break-up is probably underway with Northern Ireland having to follow EU rules and a customs barrier between England/Scotland/Wales in the Irish sea.
Devolution does not equal the break up of the UK.
However a border down the Irish sea just might. As will taking other nations taken out of EU against their express wishes.

The referendum was in 2016, 9 years after Blair's premiership. How was he responsible? He has spoken out against BREXIT.
Had Blair's government put in place the same restrictions of migration from the new 8 EU countries as did the rest of the old 20 then the UK would not have seen much immigration from those countries P155ing off the old (and not so old) whingers in the UK. Those whingers gave the likes of Farage the support to force the referendum.
You mean Blair should have foreseen that racism would drive Brexit? A Brexit which had not been conceived of back then. Plus, it was only mooted within the Tory party. Do you think it is reasonable for a Labour PM to take into consideration what a future Tory PM might dream up in several years time?
 
You mean - Boris only won the election because 56% of the voters did not vote for him (conservative).
I made an educated guess the other day, something along the lines that no UK PM (or government in power) has ever been elected on a majority popular vote.
No-one has corrected me yet.
I dare say, if anyone cares to look, if you go back far enough, when there were only two parties to choose from, and the electorate was so restricted, one might find a case to prove me wrong.
 
I made an educated guess the other day, something along the lines that no UK PM (or government in power) has ever been elected on a majority popular vote.
No-one has corrected me yet.
I dare say, if anyone cares to look, if you go back far enough, when there were only two parties to choose from, and the electorate was so restricted, one might find a case to prove me wrong.
1931 and 1935, but they were weird figures, including several parties, see note 6 below.
upload_2021-1-7_17-31-14.png

6 In 1931 and 1935 the figures for the Conservatives relate to National Government candidates and comprise Conservative, National Labour, Liberal National and National vote share and seats.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Kingdom_general_elections_overview
 
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