Okay then. 51.9% of those that could be bothered to get off their arse or fill in a postal vote form compared to the 48.1% that could in the Brexit referendum. Happy now? Anyway, why do you assume that the lazy *******s of both leavers and remainers that couldn’t be bothered to vote would have voted disproportionately to those that did? Gut feeling? Intuition? Wishful thinking? Are you saying the remainers were an apathetic bunch that thought they had it in the bag so didn’t bother voting? Tut tut - they’re a lazy bunch of ****s then aren’t they?Someone still has a problem with maths...
51.9% of 'eligible voters' didn't vote for what you wanted...
Only 36% of the electorate (eligible voters) did so
Is that right?
