That is the point.
In (most) other countries they don't have 3A fuses so they probably don't.
3 amp fuse in FCU for boiler
- Thread starter sparkwright
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In (most) other countries they don't have 3A fuses so they probably don't.
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Yes, and that identifies the various regulations which will, or may, apply to the installation of that boiler. That various regulations will apply is not in doubt.
But the problem is that none of the ones with which people here are familiar require that the supply to it be fused at 3A. Hence the question, why do Vaillant say it must be?
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I have just been on the phone to the technical helplines at Worcester Bosch and Gas Safe.
WB say as far as they are aware, there is nothing in the regulations (gas or electricity) that requires a limit on fusing to 3A.
They say the boilers they manufacture for markets outside the UK are not the same as those for this market.
Gas Safe say there is nothing in the gas regulations about fuse size. But they did say that it is written into the gas regs that manufacturer's instructions MUST be followed.
He also told me about a "very old, obsolete" Baxi Solo gas appliance which required a 5A fuse.
WB say as far as they are aware, there is nothing in the regulations (gas or electricity) that requires a limit on fusing to 3A.
They say the boilers they manufacture for markets outside the UK are not the same as those for this market.
Gas Safe say there is nothing in the gas regulations about fuse size. But they did say that it is written into the gas regs that manufacturer's instructions MUST be followed.
He also told me about a "very old, obsolete" Baxi Solo gas appliance which required a 5A fuse.
Did you ask them if they differ in internal protection in ways which make the ones in this country unsafe to use on a supply fused at > 3A?
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Nope. If you'd like to have that discussion with them, their general enquiries number is 0330 123 9559 and their tech support is 0330 123 3366.
Indeed! The manuals appear area specific. In the UK the Vaillant instructions say:
Instead, the French version makes no mention of any fuse protection whatsoever, but is concerned instead about the boiler being plugged into an accessible, suitable outlet, and warns of the danger of fluctuating voltages
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Do we know whether the product sold in France is identical to the one sold in the UK?Indeed! The manuals appear area specific. In the UK the Vaillant instructions say: .... Instead, the French version makes no mention of any fuse protection whatsoever, but is concerned instead about the boiler being plugged into an accessible, suitable outlet, and warns of the danger of fluctuating voltages
Kind Regards, John
Well - thanks for doing that, and apologies if my earlier reply made me seen ungrateful.
If they are right then there is no regulatory requirement in the UK for a 3A supply, but if they put one in their instructions then the UK gas regulations say it must be complied with.
So that deals with the question "do I have to?" - the answer is, "yes, you do if the maker says you do, and you have to no matter what your thoughts are on the matter".
And that puts an end to assertions that MIs are guidance only and don't have to be followed if they are wrong, when it comes to gas appliances.
I've emailed the question to Vaillant.
Typically the manuals have parts lists/diagrams in the back - the key thing to look at is the main PCB/electronics module and see if they have the same part number. If they have the same part number, then for the purposes of this discussion they are identical.
And what if all the part numbers have separators and multiple fields, and you detect a consistent difference in one of the fields? Or if each part number has the same leading digits and they vary between countries? That could well be just a country or language code, and the actual part may be the same but there is a difference in the language of the instructions which come with it. Or what the instructions say about wiring colours. Or if they have to reflect genuine regulatory differences.
Basically you cannot say that because a part number is different then the part itself necessarily is.
Basically you cannot say that because a part number is different then the part itself necessarily is.
AT LAST THIS HAS BEEN ACCEPTED!
How many have said this so far?
No one has disputed that.
The questions have been "Is it really necessary?" and "How do they manage where this is not possible?"
The questions have been "Is it really necessary?" and "How do they manage where this is not possible?"
Not possible?
Are you paying attention?
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